Hi Everyone,
I have come across several instance where there has been conflicting advise with regards to how the Office 365 license works.
As an example case, consider the following:
A company purchases a single O365 E3 license which comes with the desktop Office application as part of the subscription.
Additionally, the company purchases several O365 E1 (or equivalent) licenses to provide E-mail to the end users.
The company uses the account that has the E3 subscription assigned to then install the Office Desktop applications onto 5 end user machines.
Each end user has been assigned and E1 (or equivalent) license logs onto the endpoint and Outlook is configured with the E1 user account on the desktop.
So, in effect, the "Office-Install" account installed the apps on to 5 machines as per the standard usage rights (?) however, it is used by the E1 accounts.
Is this legal as per the license usage right for the Office Subscriptions?
How is it possible that the E1 or equivalent is able to use the Outlook desktop application without the required application subscription?
In this scenario, I would have thought that the process for adding the end user account into Outlook for E-mail would have also been checking that the account is licensed appropriately to use the Outlook application which has been installed on the end point, even to the point where it can check that the application has been activated via another account which has the required license and the prevent this from happening.
Is this a loophole in the licensing / subscription process that is ok to do?
After reviewing the suggested licensing documents ( https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/commerce/licenses/subscriptions-and-licenses?view=o36... ) I don't seem to be able to find where it clear that this is not allowed.
Is anyone able to advise on this?
Cheers and Thanks.
